We open with the exegesis of Romans 10:13 from the King James Version," For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved". And now from the Greek Text, "For whoever might call upon the name of the Lord will be saved". Now this is an exact quotation from the prophecy of Joel. In its original historical and prophetically setting, it refers to those who are delivered in the terrible day of the Lord. In this verse (13) Paul uses it to depict those, who as a result of calling on the name of the Lord, will be saved from sin. Here the Greek verb "ehp· ee· kahl· ehs· ee· teh" rendered "might call upon", is in the subjunctive mood and may also be rendered "whoever would call upon the name of the Lord".

These scriptures do not infer that God’s sacrifice of Jesus is indiscriminately directed to "all" or "every" or "whosoever" or "the world". Now in order to demonstrate this, we refocus on the verse of scripture that we are exegeting (Romans 10:13) and turn to the Greek grammar and literally exegete from the Greek Text. "Pahs gahr os ahn ehp· ee· kahl· ehs· eet· eh to on· om· ah keer· ee· oo so· thees· eht· eh" again rendered "For whoever might call upon the name of the Lord will be saved". Notice the grammatical construction of this verse. First note the Greek clause "pahs gahr os", which conveys the expression "for whoever". Now, to understand the implication of this thought; notice that the Greek word "pahs" is technically structured with distributive significance, i.e., "all" or "every kind of ", which is denoting or designating everything belonging to a classification or any individual within a classification; thus implying "each and every kind" or ""all parts of the whole. Next observe that the Greek conjunction "gahr", rendered "for" in the structure; gives grounds for a conclusion or an explanation, thus in this case it introduces the "cause" or "reason for" or "because". Now observe the Greek relative pronoun "os" as it compliments its antecedent "pahs" both in gender and number (masculine, singular), with its case (nominative), which is determined by its usage in the clause as they function constructively as the subject of the verse. As we further scrutinize the verse, note the contrasting moods of the main verbs of this verse namely the subjunctive mood for "ehpee· kahl· ehs· eet· eh" rendered "might call upon" and the indicative mood for "so· thees●eh●teh" rendered "will or shall be saved". Note again the subjunctive mood denotes probability, which expresses that it is possible that some (not all) might or would call upon the name of the Lord.

So what is conveyed is the possibility and probability that some (not all) "will" and "do" call upon the name of the Lord. As we survey the effect or result of those calling, we observe the indicative mood as it denotes the factuality that those who call upon Him "shall or will be saved". In other words "all those "who do call upon the name of the Lord (without exception) "will be saved". Now we note the respective tenses and voices of the main verbs in this verse namely, aorist tense and middle voice for "ehpee· kahl· ehs· eet· eh" (might call upon) and future tense and passive voice for "so· thees· eht· eh" (will or shall be saved).

Now as we closely scrutinize John 3:16; we literally read from the Greek Text, "Oo· tos gahr eeg· ahp· ee· seen o theh· os ton kos· mos os· teh ton yee· on ton mon· oy· eh· nee ehth· o· kehn een· ah pahs o peest· ehv· on ees ahf· ton mee ahp· ol· ee· teh ahll ehkh· ee zo· een eh· o· nee· on", rendered,. Unfortunately, some people quote this verse with complete "For God so loved the world, that His Son the only begotten, He gave, that everyone who is believing in Him may not be loosed or perish, but may have life everlasting (without end)." Now there is general disregard for the verses that both precede and follow it; thus the context wherein Jesus spoke it is completely ignored. My former Pastor, a man I dearly loved, Pastor Clyde Colbert Sr., use to always admonish the ministers under him, of the danger of taking one verse out of a passage and using it without reading at least a few verses above and a few verses below it, before attempting to interpret its meaning. I have found this to be excellent advice, for it allows one the advantage of conceptualizing the total context wherein a thought is expressed, a question is raised or a statement is made. Thus, it is encumbered upon us to read the total contents of this passage and not in isolation take this verse (John 3:16) and rely upon the expressions "the world" and "whosoever" to determine what the Lord was conveying. Also, we must consider whom Jesus was speaking to and what He was talking about! Is it possible that Jesus, who was God incarnated in the flesh at the time He is quoted in this verse, would ever make a contradictory statement to the sovereignty of God’s election and call to salvation? The obvious answer is absolutely no! The Bible repeatedly stresses that salvation is the exclusive work of God. For example, it states in Acts 13:48 (King James Version), "And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed." Note they did not believe first and then they were appointed, but they were caused to believe, because they had been previously appointed. In Acts 16:14, it speaks of one named Lydia, who was saved when "the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul. Also in II Thessalonians 2:13, the Apostle Paul states, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation". In light of this, it is not possible that Jesus is stating that God’s election to salvation is arbitrary and extemporaneously placed into "the world for whosoever".

Now with this in mind, we begin with the contextual and historical aspect of John 3:16. As we move to the beginning of chapter three of John we note that the entire context which is John 3:1-21, gives the account of a conversation between our Lord Christ Jesus and one who was named Nicodemus. So here we ask the compound question, who was Nicodemus and what is the total contents of their conversation? Now it is recorded in God’s word "that not many wise men, after the flesh" or mighty or noble are called (I Corinthians 1:26; James 4:6), but Nicodemus is identified as a "ruler" in the King James Version. Here the Greek noun "ahr· khon", rendered "ruler", describes him as a high official or respected leader or one who exercises authority or one who is invested with power or dignity, thus a Lord, Prince or Magistrate. Historically speaking, Nicodemus was a member of the Sanhedrin and was counted as one of the three riches men of Jerusalem, but it was said that afterward he became poor. This was conjectured because later it was said that his daughter was seen gathering barleycorn for food from under the horse’s feet.

Note the introductory statements of John, chapter three verses one, two and three (King James Version), "There was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler o the Jews: (2) The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him. (3) Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily I say unto thee, except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God". Now as we have already stated, Nicodemus, a Pharisee and ruler came to Jesus at night for a private interview. No one else was present; there was no one else around so we must keep in mind that this conversation, this communicative exchange of questions and answers, were conducted in privacy and exclusively between Jesus and Nicodemus. Note in verse two, how Nicodemus, who was of the Sanhedrin, addressed Jesus as Rabbi. Here the Greek noun "Rahv· vee" is a transliteration of the Hebrew word "Rabbi", which comes from a Semite root word meaning "great" or "head".

Now as the interchange continues, verse three of John chapter three begins with the expression "Jesus answered". Here note the Greek verb "ahp· ehk· ree· thee" rendered "rely" or "answer" is in the indicative mood. This means the subsequent conveyance is factual. The aorist tense conveys the inference that the statement that is to follow describes an action completed in the past. The passive voice means that which is conveyed, is an action, which is not performed by any man, but rather it is received from God. Thus, that is the promise of the new birth by and through the seed, which is Jesus Christ (the anointed one). Here it is very helpful to have a working knowledge of covenants, i.e., the Abrahamic, Davidic and New Covenants, all unilateral contracts that God has with His covenant people of prior and future dispensations (Promise, Law and Millennium). The manifestation of the new birth in essence is the catalyst of the implementation of these covenants for it is by and through Jesus Christ that all the conditions of the contracts are fulfilled.

Now as we continue the grammatical aspect of scrutinizing the contents of this passage, we see that when the above stated reasoning is followed, it gives restrictive flow to the general and universal interpretations that are ascribed to the many things that Jesus conveys in this communication. Jesus, who was God incarnated in the flesh, was omniscient, so He knew all things but he disciplined Himself (Philippians 2:6-7). Thus in John 3:3, the Greek Text reads "ah· meen ah· meen lehg· o see eh· ahn mee tees yehn· nee· thee ahno· thee oo theen· ah· teh ee· theen teen Vahs· eel· ee· ahn too Theh· oo", this would actually translate "Truly, truly, I say unto you, if any one may not be born from above, he is not able to see the reign of God". Note the Greek phrase "yehn· nee· thee ahno· thee", rendered "born or birth from above or renewed". Here Jesus elaborated on one of the key subjects that the Pharisees had established an ardent posture on and that is birth. The Pharisees had doctrinal distinct positions on birth and resurrection that were accepted by many of the Jews.

From the writings of the respected biblical historian Josephus, it is stated "the Pharisees say that the soul of good men only passes over into another body, while the soul of bad men is chastised by eternal punishment". In Matthew 14:2, note the question asked by Jesus’ disciples, (KJV) "master, who did sin, this man or his parents, that he was born blind? The "Rabbis" as many Jews referred to the Pharisees, believed in the pre-existence of souls as well as the resurrection. Thus, it is in this vein that Jesus began His elaboration on the subject "yehn· nee· thee" or "birth". Here Jesus knowing the doctrinal position of Pharisaical teaching immediately explains that this birth was not an incarnation but regeneration. Here He expresses the phrase "yehn· nee· thee ahno· thee", specifying that it is a ‘birth from above" or as it relates to the past, that which is initiated at a prior time or from an earlier period, from the beginning or from the first. Also as it would relate to future time, it would indicate repetition, or that which is anew.

Note the wording of verse five as contrasted with verse three, "This renewed birth from above" is of water and spirit". Note the Greek word "ee· thahr· tos", translated "water", as it is used conjunctively with the Greek word "pnehv· mah· tos", rendered "spirit" in verse 5. Now, there are many who teach that this verse (as well as others) documents the fact that the usage of the term water, in this context; causes the ceremony of water baptism to be an essential prerequisite for (to) salvation. And then this assertion of water baptism leads to division of factions debating the issues as to how the ceremony should be performed. Again we raise the question, who was Jesus speaking to? The answer is Nicodemus and in light of this, the reference to "water" absolutely signifies "washing" or "baptism" through the medium of "washing". Now again we pose the question, "what gospel did Jesus preach?

Now as we continue in the context of John chapter three, note Jesus’ statement in verses 6 through 12 contrasting earthly or "terrestrial" things with heavenly or "celestial" things. Here, our Lord explained the necessity for this change of man’s status, by stating that the earthly (fleshly) and visible conditions for which man is associated with this present sinful world; is distinct from the Heavenly, spiritual and invisible conditions. Thus it is necessary for man to be transformed in order to be in harmony and fellowship with the rein (Kingdom) of God. Consequently that which is birthed or born of the flesh is and could never be any thing else but corruptible, whereas only that which is birthed or born of the spirit can inherit those things that are incorruptible. So here Christ shows that it is necessary in the nature of the thing, for no man is fit to enter into the reign or Kingdom of God until he is re-birthed or renewed, because that which is born of the flesh is corruptible flesh. Note that which is seen versus that which is unseen illustrates this change. Note the usage of the exact Greek word "pnehv· mah", translated both "spirit" and "wind", as Jesus demonstrates the reality and authenticity of the eternal Heavenly things.

Hence following this format we read from the KJV, verse 13, "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven". Verse 14, "And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up". Verse 16(1^st phrase), "For God so loved the word, that he gave his only begotten Son". And now from the Greek Text, verse.13, "And no one hath gone up to heaven, except he who is in the heaven". Verse. 14, "And as Moses did lift up the serpent in the wilderness, so it behoveth the son of man to be lifted up". Verse. 16 (1st phrase), "For in this manner or way, God did so love the world, that His Son, the only begotten, He gave". Now continuing this format, we read from the King James Version, "verse. 15 and 16 (2^nd phrase), "That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal everlasting life. And now from the Greek text, verses 15 and 16 (2^nd phrase) "That (or in order that) every one who is believing in Him may not perish (be loosed), but may have life everlasting (without end)".

Now as we proceed in verse 13 with this word order we continue in the Greek grammar, as we note the Greek adjectival pronoun, "oo· thees", rendered "no one", as it is used for negating a referent, thus "no other" or "no one other than" He (the Son of man) who is in the heaven, that is, already "ahn· ahv· ehv· eek· ehn", (ascended) is born or renewed. Therefore, in verse 14, only He (Jesus) can be or should be exalted. Here the basic theme is that which is "eep· so· sehn", rendered "lifted up on high" or "exalted above all". So the metaphorical reference to the occurrence of the brass serpent in the wilderness, actually avers to the fact that, (from the Greek Text) "oo· tos eep· so· thee· neh thee ton yee· on too ahnth· ro●poo", translated, "In this manner (it is necessary) that the Son of man be lifted up (or exalted). Thus from the Greek Text (1^st phrase of verse 16), "oo-tos gahr ee· gah· pee· seen o Theh· os ton kos· mos os· teh ton yee· on ton mono· yeh· nee eh· tho· kehn", rendered, "in this way or manner God did so love the world, that His son, the only begotten, He gave". So the cause or reasoning for what God had provided for deliverance and salvation is now clearly set forth and that is Jesus, the Son of Man, the only begotten one uniquely born or birthed from above; was given as a ransom for those who will be saved.

As we continue our exegesis in light of the context, we note that the Greek noun "ton kos· mon" translated "the world", as used in this verse would be out of harmony with the scope and meaning of the passage if its reference were to all who believe (Jews and Gentile). Thus as Jesus makes the statement, Gentiles are not included because salvation at this point historically speaking, had not been directly offered to the Gentiles. Now we have all heard this statement, "surely, world means world, that means you, me and everybody". In reply to this, our suggestion is to take a Bible Concordance and look up the word "world" and then read carefully the various scriptural passages in which the term "world" (as a translation of kosmos) occurs. In doing this, one will quickly perceive that ascertaining the precise meaning of the word "world" in any given passage; is not nearly as easy as one might otherwise suppose.

Those who attempt this exercise will find that the Greek word "kos· mos" and its English translation "world" are not used with a uniform significance in the New Testament. Actually "kos· mos" (world) is used in quite a number of different ways. For example, we refer to a few passages where this term occurs (from the KJV): (1) In Acts 17:24, "kos· mos", (world) is used in reference to the universe as a whole. (2) In John 13:1, "kos· mos" is used in reference to the earth. (3) In Ephesians 1:4, "kos· mos" is used to reference creation. (4) In John 12:31, "kos· mos" is used in reference to the world system. (5) In Romans 3:19, it is used in reference to the entire human race. (6) In John 15:18, and Romans 3:6, it is used in reference to humanity excluding believers. (7) In Romans 11:12, "kos· mos" is used to reference Gentiles as contrasted from Jews. (8) In John 1:29, 3:16,17; 6:33; 12:47; I Corinthians 4:9; II Corinthians 5:19, "kos· mos" is used in reference to believers only. (9) In Romans 3:6, "kos· mos" is obviously used in reference to unbelievers, because believers will not be judged (condemned)!

Thus it is demonstrated from the examples given that "kos· mos" (world) has several different clearly defined meanings in the New Testament. So the question may be asked, has the Holy Spirit allowed the usage of a word to confuse and confound those who read the scriptures? The answer to this and any other questions of this nature is absolutely no! Note, as we have said, and here we again implore all of God's people; "the word of God can not be understood by merely academically reading it, but it must be prayerfully studied or scrutinized to be spiritually comprehended (II Timothy 3:15). Now this automatically eliminates those who are not recipients of the Holy Spirit for He (alone) is the teacher. Also the scriptures are not written for those who are too lazy or too dilatory or too busy with the things of this world, such that they have little or no time and no heart to "search and study" the Holy writings (John 5:39). Now the next question is, "How is one who searches the scriptures and know the relevant meanings of the term "kos· mos" (world); to determine its application in any given verse of scripture? The key word is contextual. This may be ascertained by a careful study of the context, by diligently noting what is predicated of "the world" in each passage, and by prayerfully cross referencing other parallel passages to the one being studied.

Now as we return to our base text, the 1^st phrase of John 3:16, note again the Greek adjectival adverb "oo· tos" rendered "in this manner (or way). Observe its three-fold functions; first as a combination with reference to what precedes it (verses 13 and 14) with a correlation to produce a comparison in reference to it, and finally to introduce that which follows it. Thus we proceed in this way as we note the Greek noun "O Theh· os" rendered "God", as it is in the nominative case (subject of the sentence). So the principle thought of the phrase is that God "ee · gah· pee· seen" translated "loved" "ton kos· mos" translated "the world". But it is clear who is identified in this context as evidenced by the selective reference to Israel as God’s exclusive elect in the wilderness in the companion verses of 13 & 14. So it follows that "ton kos· mos" in John 3:16, would identify and be confined to God’s elect, the world of believers.

Thus God in the manner historically documented in the wilderness, did so love "ton kosmos" (the world (of His elect), os●teh (that), "ton Yee· on" (His Son), ton mo· no· yeh· nee" (the only begotten) "eh· tho· kehn" (He gave or granted). Now observe that the principal subject of John 3:16 is Christ as the gift of God. Note that this phrase identifies what moved God to "give or grant" His only begotten Son and that was His great love. But the underlying questions are (1) whom did God love so much? and (2) for whom did He give His "only begotten Son"? Now it is essential to understand that the "the world" in John 3:16, refers to "the world of believers" (God’s elect) in contradiction from the world of the ungodly (II Peter 2:5) or the world of unbelievers (John 15:18; Romans 3:6). So the term "world" is unequivocally established by a comparison of the other passages which speak of God’s" love". Note in Romans 5:8, it states (KJV), "God commendeth His love toward us in that while we (God’s elect) were yet sinner, Christ died for us (God’s elect). In Hebrews 12:6-8, it states, (6) "for whom the Lord loveth He "peh· thehv· ee" (chasteneth and instructs through disciplining) and scourgeth every son whom He receiveth (the elect). (7) "If you "eep· om· ehn· o" (endure or abide under) chastening, God dealeth "pros· phehr· o" ( dealeth or bring unto) with you as with sons; for what son is he whom a father chasteneth not? (8) But if you be without chastisement, whereof all are "meht· o· khos" (partners or participators) or partakers, then are you bastards, "no· thos", (illegitimate or rejected) and not sons. In I John 4:19, it states, we (God’s elect) love Him because He first loved us (God’s elect).

So what is God’s relationship to the world? Consider John 15:18-19 wherein it states (from the King James Version), (18) "If the world hate you, ye know that it hated me before it hated you". (19) "If you were of the world, the world would love his own; but because ye are not of the world, therefore the world hateth you. In I John 2:15, it states "Love not the world, neither the things that are in the world. If any man love the world, the love of the Father is not in him". Is it conceivable that God would not direct His elect to love that which He loves? I John 3:1states "Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed (granted or given) "thee· tho· mee" upon us (God’s elect) that we should be called the Sons of God; therefore the world "knoweth ("yeen· os· ko") us not because it knew him not". Thus it is established that there is no form of intimacy between God and "the world". Accordingly, the usage of the term "kos· mos", (world) in John 3:16 unmistakably has reference to God’s own, (God’s elect), whom He loves and gave His only begotten son for, i.e., "the world of believers".

Now we turn to the effect, results or remedy that was provided by God for deliverance and salvation, in considering John 3:15 and the 2^nd phrase of John 3:16. Note as we have stated, the wording in it’s implied context is the same but the literal congruency is not exacting. In verse 15, the literal reading is "ee· nah pahs o peest· ehv· on ehn ahf· to eh· khee zo· een eh· o· yee· on", literally translated "that everyone who or is believing in Him, may in Him have eternal life". Notice that the clause "should not" or "may not perish"; does not actually appear in the Greek Text, but it is freely inserted by most translations because the context does indeed imply that which is not actually written.

Here the conjunction "ee· nah", rendered, "that" "or in order that", expresses the purpose or goal of the preceding verse or verses, in this case (verses 13 &14). Thus there was instant deliverance and salvation to those Israelites in the wilderness camp. Now again we stress the fact that this deliverance (salvation) was not applicable to "everyone" in the wilderness that was or may have been bitten by the serpent, but "only those Israelites" who were in the camp who looked upon the remedy of the bass serpent on the pole. Thus we now consider the Greek adjective "pahs", rendered, "whosoever" or whoever" and here we note what many Greek scholars either consciously or subconsciously but conveniently ignore and that is the definite article "o". Note "paths o", as structured with the definite article and followed by the substantive prepositional phrase, implies inclusion of all members or parts of a category. So "paths o", would be rendered "the whosoever" or "the entire or whole" or "everyone included in a group" or "everyone who". In addition to this, the Greek present participle "peest· ehv· on", rendered "believing", is in the active voice and its declension; nominative masculine, singular agrees with its descriptive Greek adjective (and definitive article) "pahs· o". Hence the translation would literally read, "in order that everyone who is believing". Now as we revert to the cause or reasoning aspect of the communication, we note that the message centers around obedience to the word of God (to focus on the bass serpent). Here in this verse, the focus shifts from the serpent on the pole that was raised to the Son of man who is exalted above the earth upon the cross of Calvary. Note this is substantiated by the Greek phrase "ehn ahf•to", rendered "in Him". Note the statement of Jesus in John 12:32-33 wherein He declares (KJV) (verse 32), "And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me" and (verse 33), "This he said, signifying what death he should die". Here it is documented that all who are to be delivered and saved (salvation) manifestly must be drawn to Him through the sacrificial offering by His crucifixion on Calvary (or the lifting up on high) of the Son of Man (Jesus).

Note the actual or literal Greek Text of John 12:32, "Kahg· o eh· ahn eep· so· tho ehk tees yees pahn· dahs ehl· kee· so pros ehm· ahf· ton" translated "For (when) I if I may be raised (lifted up high) from (above) the earth, will draw (drag) all (the elect) unto myself". Note the wording "all men", is not actually stated but the adjectival pronoun "pahn· dahs" (all or every) which is in the accusative case proceeds the Greek verb "ehl· kee· so" (to be lead by force or drag), thus the implication is all who may be (subjunctive mood) strongly pulled and attracted (compelled) by Him, unto Him. Observe the indicative mood (it is a fact) and future tense of the verb "ehl· kee· so", (will draw or drag); it connotes God’s action as a result of His propitiating sacrifice or status of being lifted or exalted above the earth. Now again, it is in Him. So John 3:15, without a doubt has reference to the elect of God identified by the antecedent verses 13 and 14, which is exclusively designated to those Israelites in the wilderness.

Now we focus on the effect or results or the remedy of the 2^nd phrase of John 3:16, as we note the literal Greek wording; "ee· nah pahs o pee· stehv· on ees ahf· ton mee ahp· ol· ee· teh ahll eh· khee zo· een eh· o· nee· on" translated "that whosoever believeth (everyone who is believing) may not perish (be loosed) but have life unending (eternal).

Here again note the conjunction "ee· nah" rendered "that" or "in order that", as it expresses the introduction of the resulting clauses, which expresses the purpose or goal of the 1^st phrase antecedent context. So the key question is, what is the actual context? Now again, to insure exegetical accuracy, we apply the three fold principles of scrutiny, namely grammatical, historical and contextual. In the grammatical sense, we note that the structure of the Greek adjective "pahs· o" is in the same format as we previously viewed in verse 15, i.e., it carries the definite article. Thus "pahs o", would likewise, as in the case of verse 15, imply inclusion of all members of a certain category.

Thus, God determines those of us who are to believe in Jesus Christ; whom God has given for us, even to us to accept the gift and answer the intention of the giver, who alone has effectuated this exclusive remedy of salvation. Now it is a fact as conveyed by the clearly defined remedy, the expressed latter ensign of Jesus Christ, the Son of Man, who replaces the former insignia of the bass serpent, that those (the whoever) believing on Him shall not perish (be loosed). Note again the participle verb "pee· stehv· on", translated "is believing". It is in the present tense and active voice, which defines continuous action in the present. Thus, faith (belief and trust) is manifested by the recipient of God’s grace in a two-fold manner. First, the gift of deliverance is provided by God through the Son of Man (Jesus Christ). Secondly, the gift of faith is also provided by God to believe upon the only remedy for salvation. Hence, the exercise of saving faith is expressed through the usage of the Greek preposition "ees", in the accusative case as it denotes God (even Christ) as the direct object of salvation. So the Greek phrase "peest· ehv· on ees ahf· ton" rendered "is believing in Him", denotes ones reliance on God to provide confidence for belief (Mark 9:23-24).

Now in examining the contrasting resulting effects of belief and unbelief, note the aorist tense and subjunctive mood of the Greek verb "ahpo· lee· teh" augmented by the negative participle "mee" rendered "may not perish" or "may not be loosed". Here again we have the iffy status of the subjunctive mood conjunctively guided by the aorist tense, which conclusively connotes a completed action in the past. This is verified by the strong adversative conjunction "ahll" rendered "but", which indicates strong contrast, difference and limitation or an introduction to an exception or exemption; then "ahll" (ahllah) could also be expressed "rather" or "however". This Greek conjunction thus serves as a bridge to change the thought direction from the preceding to the succeeding situation. Consequently those who "are believing", do not perish; rather they "eh· khee zo· een eh· o· nee· on" translated "may have life everlasting" (without end). Note again that the iffy connotation of the subjunctive mood of the Greek verb "eh· khee", is conjunctively guided by the present tense; denoting the present continuous position of eternal security, which is realized by all of God’s elect. It infers a close everlasting relationship engendered with the possession of spiritual blessings that are exclusively enjoyed by those who are favored by God. Here the active voice connotes God’s grace that is bestowed upon God’s people. Thus, the sacrificial death of Jesus insures that everyone who is believing (or caused to believe) in Him will not perish or be loosed from Him, but will (not many) have (possess, own and enjoy) life without end. God eternally purposed this position (in Him, in Christ) for His elect only.

This is further illustrated by the succeeding verses and that is the contents of verses 17-21. Here we read John 3:17 from the King James Version, "For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved". And now from the Greek Text, "For God did not send His Son to the world that He may judge the world, but that the world may be saved through Him". Note in light of our context, it is explicitly stated that God’s reason for sending His Son ("ees", preposition accusative) "to" the world (of believers); was not to judge or condemn the world (of believers) but He sent Him for the purpose that the world (of believers) may be delivered or saved through Him. Now the Greek verb "ahp· ehs· teel· ehn (ahp· os· tehl· o) is translated "to send away". It denotes a commission or one who is sent with authority for a purpose. Here the indicative mood and aorist tense of this Greek verb document the fact that it is a completed action that occurred in a past period. Thus God in eternity, commissioned His Son (Jesus) to "so· thee" rendered "save, preserve from harm or rescue", His elect, the world of believers as determined exclusively by Him. This is confirmed by the aorist tense and passage voice of this Greek verb, which documents that this past completed action, was conferred upon the world (of believers) at a previous point. Thus God, through the giving His Son, shows that He purposed salvation in eternity, not the destruction of the world (of believers); nevertheless, those who don’t receive His provision of salvation must necessarily perish because Jesus is the only remedy for sin.

This is expressed in John 3:18, as we read from the King James Version, "He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God". Now from the Greek Text, "He who is believing in Him is not judged, but he who is not believing hath been judged already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God". Note the key Greek verbs in this verse, first the participle "peest· ehv· on" (he is believing) and "kree· neh· teh" (kree· no) (judged or condemned). In the first phrase, they are present-active, nominate-masculine-singular and indicative-present-pasive-3^rd person singular respectively. Now observe the verbs in the latter phrase of this verse, namely "keh· ree· teh", (determine, decide or judge) and "pehp· ees· tehf· kehn" (believed, trusted, convinced or confidence), as they are both indicative perfect 3^rd person singular, but passive and active voices respectively. Now if we accurately utilize the Greek grammar of this verse (John 3:18), then the context will automatically align itself in a consistent manner. Note that the Greek word order in this verse certainly is in harmony with the historical and contextual contents of those truths that are previously conveyed in this passage. Observe that the focal points are belief, trust and confidence, thus faith or the lack of it on the one hand, verses judgment and condemnation or the lack of it as it has been previously determined decided and judged in the past. Some are going to take serious issue with the premise that this was all adjudicated in eternity, but this verse as well as the entire passage consistently authenticates the sovereignty of God’s choice and election through His foreknowledge, predestination, call (summons), justification, and glorification (Rom 8:30).

Here note the Greek phrase "o peest· ehv· on ees ahf· ton oo kree· neh· teh" rendered "he who is believing (present tense) in Him, is not judged" (present-indicative). So it is a present fact that the condition of believing is positively linked with the status of one who is not condemned (or negatively judged). Note the passive voice of the Greek verb "kree· neh· teh" (condemnation) as it conveys the thought that an outside agent (God) made the evaluation (innocence or guilt) based on the recipient’s trust in Jesus. Thus it follows that the determination of ones status would necessarily be conditioned upon the determination of one’s condition (belief, trust). This is further demonstrated by the continuation of the next Greek phrase "o theh mee peest· ehv· on ee· thee keh· kree· teh" rendered "but he who is not believing has been judged already". Here note the structure of the definite article "o" as it is used to form the participle into a relative clause as its coordinating counterpart "theh" co-joins it. The conjunction "theh" is most commonly used to denote continuation and further thought development; taking its specific flow from the context, which in this case denotes contrast; accordingly it is rendered "but". Thus in contrast, he who is "mee peest●ehv· on", (not believing), notice the present tense; is "ee●thee keh· kree· teh" rendered "already condemned". Here note that the Greek adverb "ee· thee" literally rendered "of time", "by this time" or "already"; modifies the verb "keh· kree· teh" rendered "determined or decided". Thus the one, who is not believing, has already been determined (to be negatively judged or guilty), as conveyed by the perfect tense. Now the perfect tense defines a completed action in the past with the results of that action continuing until the present. Hence the determination of judgment (condemnation) in the past; is linked with the determination of the continuous action of unbelief in the present.

Now we move to the conclusive Greek phrase in this verse, "o· tee mee peh· pees· tehf· kehn ees to on· om· ah too mon· oyehn· oos yee· oo too Theh· oo", rendered "because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God". Here this phrase sums up the preceding two statements (phrases) in this verse. First we note the Greek conjunction "o· tee", rendered, "because" or "since" or for (this reason), as it is used to introduce a cause or reason based on an evident fact. Thus the thought is conveyed of one who has "mee peh· pees· tehf· kehn", rendered "not believed" or "not trusted" or "has not been convinced" and does not have any confidence in ("ees) the "on· om· ah (name) of "too mono yeh noos yee· oo too Theh· oo", rendered "the only begotten Son of God". Now this occurs ‘according to" or as "a result of" or "because of", a prior determination and the resulting effect as expressed in the antecedent phrases in this verse as well as the entire preceding verses of this context. Again this is substantiated and confirmed by the perfect tense as it defines a completed action in the past with the results of the action continuing until the present.

The next two verses in the context (John 3:19-20) give demonstrative testimony to the state and status of those who are the non-elect of God as we read first from the King James Version, (19) "And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil". (20) "For everyone that doeth evil hateth the light, neither cometh to the light, lest his deed should be reproved". Now from the Greek Text, (19) "And this is the judgment, that the light hath come to the world (of unbelievers) and men, the (non elect), did love the darkness rather than the light, for their works were evil". (20) "for every one who is doing wicked things hateth the light and doth not come unto the light, that his work may not be detected (condemned)". We now observe the pre-arranged state and status of the non elect or permanently unregenerated mankind as we note in verse 19 the Greek phrase "eegah· pee· sahn ee ahn· thro· pee mahl· lon to sko· tos ee to phos", rendered "men did love the darkness rather than the light". Here we focus on the main verb of this phrase, "ee· gah· pee· sahn", rendered "did love". Notice the indicative mood and aorist tense as it speaks of the fact that this love for darkness over light was a (one time) completed action in the past that was determined and attributed to those who are eternally lost. This was all implemented through the fall of mankind, thus these are the ones who have not been ordained to receive God’s mercy (Acts 13:48). Now this is manifested by the Greek phrase "een gahr ahf· ton pon· ee· rah tah ehr· gah", translated "for their works, were evil. Note the Greek verb "een", rendered "were", as it is expressed in the indicative mood and imperfect tense. Here we observe that the imperfect tense denotes continuous action in the past, thus it is a fact that evil works or deeds were previously assigned to those who "love darkness rather than light", and this "ehs· teen" "is" the basis of the "kree· sees" judgment or condemnation (note the present tense and indicative mood). Now this is the underlying fact governing those who are lost and will perish.

This is further illustrated in the 20^th verse by the Greek phrase "pahs gahr o phahv· lah prahs· son mee· see to phos keh ook ehr· kheh· teh pros to phos", rendered "for every one (or all of a kind) who is doing evil things hateth the light and does not come into the light". This is pre-conditionally true of all men (by the nature of Adam total depravity) but note the Greek verbal expression "ook ehr· kheh· teh", rendered "does not come". This verb is in the indicative mood (it is a fact) and, present tense and the middle or passive voice that indicates an outside agent (Satan the devil) is the influence, directing the lost away from the light (II Corinthians 4:3-4). Thus those who are lost, practice their deeds of wickedness in darkness. The obvious reason for this is expressed by the Greek phrase "ee· nah mee eh· lehgkh· tee tah ehr· gah ahfton" translated "that his works may not be detected or exposed and reproved". Here we note that the Greek verb "eh●lehgkh· thee" rendered "detected" or ‘expressed", as it is in the subjunctive mood and aorist tense. Here the "iffy" connotation of the subjunctive mood speaks of the inactiveness of God in dealing with the present condemned acts of the lost, non-elect in this age. The Apostle Paul states in Hebrews 12:8 (KJV), "But if ye be without chastisement (correction), whereof all (the elect) are partakers, then are ye ("noth· os") bastards and (illegitimate) and not sons (or children of God)".

Now as we move to the final verse of our context (John 3:21), we read first from the King James Version, (21) "But, he that doeth truth cometh to the light, that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God". Now from the Greek Text, (21) "But he who is doing the truth, doth come to the light, that his works may be made manifested, that in God they are having been wrought". Here we note the conclusive statement of this verse as it confirms the factuality of God’s contrasting relationship with His elect as it is distinguished from those not called by Him. Now this verse does not begin with the strong adversative conjunction "allah", rendered "but" however the Greek phrase "o theh pee· on" is grammatically constructed to be translated "but he who is doing". Here again as in verse 18, the Greek definite article "o" (nominative, masculine, singular) is placed before the conjunction particle "theh", to denote continuation and further thought development, taking it specific sense from the context as it is contrasted from the antecedent verses 19 and 20, thus the implied counterpoint could be expressed by the English word "but". So those or he who "pee· on"; here the Greek verbal participle is translated "is doing", "teen ah●lee· thee· ahn" rendered "the truth", "ehr kheh· teh pros to phos" rendered "doth come to the light".

Observe the indicative mood, present tense and passive voice of the verb "ehr· kheh· teh" rendered "does come", as it conveys the fact that those who do come (present tense), are drawn by an outside agent (note the passive voice), who is God (John 6:44). Thus the one, who comes to the light, is doing or loves the truth. The truth (teen ahl· ee· thee· ahn) is defined as the word of God (John 17:17). Now the results are expressed in the final Greek phrase, namely, "ee· nah phah· nehr· o· thee ahf· too tah ehr· gah o· tee ehn Theh· o ehs· teen eer· gahs· meh· nah" rendered, "that his works may be manifested that in God they are having been wrought". Here the Greek verb "pah· neh· ro· thee" translated "manifested" is in the subjunctive mood (iffy condition) but it is guided by the aorist tense, which connotes that the revelation or manifestation of righteous deeds are causative, i.e., made known or are caused to be by an agent outside of the believer (passive voice). The Greek conjunction "o· tee" rendered "that", is used declaratively to form a direct assertion.

This assertion or perception is that it is "eer· gahs· meh· nah" rendered "wrought" or "accomplished" or "activated", "ehn Theh· o" translated "in God". Note the verb participle "eer· gahs●meh●nah" (accomplished) as it is in the perfect tense and the passive voice. The perfect tense denotes completed action in the past that is continuous in the present. The passive voice denotes that an agent outside of the believer (God) has accomplished that which bring us to the light. Accordingly all the contents of John 3:1-21, give consistent testimony and documentation to the sovereignty of God’s eternal choice and election of individual (believers) to salvation. All who will consider these writings of John without proclivity will understand that the contents therein thoroughly authenticate the Doctrine of Election.

*Published 040504